anyone else?

[jwantz at hpcc2.hpcc.noaa.gov]

Hi Cecil,
Yes, it is discriminatory.  I have a good friend who is blind and has a 
sighted wife that ran into exactly this problem.
Jeez!!!

     Jim Wantz WB0TFK
On Thu, 16 May 2002, Cecil 
H. Whitley wrote:

> Hi,
> At this moment my chain has been severly jerked.  So here's the scenario....
> I went in on april 23 to find a new car.  Got pre-approved and everything.
> Found a car that both me and my wife liked.  Traded in my old car and we
> drove the new one home.  I signed the contract.  The title to the previous
> car was in my name, it was registered in my name, and it was insured in my
> name.  On the new car loan capitol 1 (the underwriter) is attempting to
> require that I have a co-signer with a drivers license.  The car will be
> registered in my name, insured in my name and titled in my name (once it is
> paid for), so why should I be required to have a person cosign the loan
> simply because they have a license?  I can within the limits of my insurance
> policy have anyone I desire to drive the vehicle do so.  I'm not making any
> sort of commentment that only she will drive it.
> 
> So, has anyone else run into this?  Is this not a discriminatory requirement
> since it has nothing to do with my (or hers) ability to pay?  Bottom line,
> we are a single income family (mine) and so having her cosign isn't going to
> improve their ability to collect.
> 
> Comments welcome!
> 
> Cecil
> 
> 
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